Liron Kopinsky
2012-04-03 19:34:08 UTC
In Israel, we start saying Mashiv Haruach 2 weeks after Shmini Atzeret to
give the people who made Aliya laRegel an opportunity to return to their
homes.
Why don't we stop saying Mashiv Haruach 2 weeks before Pesach for the same
reason?
My presumption is that it has something to do with the need for a public
hachraza on both Shmini Atzeret and Pesach to notify people that the change
is happening (either now or in 2 weeks) and that can't work retroactively
from Pesach to Rosh Chodesh Nissan.
Kol Tuv,
give the people who made Aliya laRegel an opportunity to return to their
homes.
Why don't we stop saying Mashiv Haruach 2 weeks before Pesach for the same
reason?
My presumption is that it has something to do with the need for a public
hachraza on both Shmini Atzeret and Pesach to notify people that the change
is happening (either now or in 2 weeks) and that can't work retroactively
from Pesach to Rosh Chodesh Nissan.
Kol Tuv,
--
Liron Kopinsky
liron.kopinsky at gmail.com
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Liron Kopinsky
liron.kopinsky at gmail.com
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